Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event in healthcare?

• A. A patient falling in the hospital without injury
• B. A near-miss medication error
• C. An unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness
• D. A patient developing an infection during a hospital stay

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sentinel event in healthcare is an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness. These events are serious occurrences that warrant immediate investigation and response to prevent their recurrence and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the definition of a sentinel event. While choices A, B, and D are serious incidents, they do not involve an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness, which is the defining characteristic of a sentinel event.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
• B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
• C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
• D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

3. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

4. What are the advantages of using internal pools of nurses for staffing purposes?

• A. Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost
• B. Centralization
• C. Staffing mix
• D. Staff satisfaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost. Internal float pools of nurses offer advantages such as being familiar with the hospital environment and staff, which can enhance communication and collaboration. Additionally, utilizing internal nurses is more cost-effective compared to hiring agency nurses, contributing to financial savings for the healthcare facility. Choice B, Centralization, is not a direct advantage of using internal pools of nurses. Choice C, Staffing mix, is a broader concept that does not specifically address the advantages of internal nurse pools. Choice D, Staff satisfaction, is important but not directly related to the specific advantages of utilizing internal nurse pools for staffing purposes.

5. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

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