which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity
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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

2. A supervisor is restricting the flow of communication between staff. This has resulted in the staff having two very opposite directions. The supervisor's actions are known as which type of force?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restraining force. In this scenario, the supervisor's actions of restricting communication are creating opposing directions among the staff, which is impeding progress and change. Restraining forces work against change by hindering or restricting movement in the desired direction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. 'Opposing force' does not specifically address the hindrance caused by the supervisor's actions. 'Driving force' is a positive force that initiates and supports change, which is not the case here. 'Restrictive force' is not a commonly used term in the context of organizational behavior and change management.

3. A staff nurse describes the unit manager as 'a born leader.' The nurse ascribes to which theory of leadership?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trait theories. The nurse describing the unit manager as 'a born leader' aligns with trait theories of leadership, which suggest that certain inborn characteristics or traits contribute to effective leadership. This theory emphasizes that leaders possess natural qualities that make them suitable for leadership roles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Behavioral theories focus on the actions and behaviors of leaders, formal leadership theories emphasize organizational structure and roles, and democratic leadership theories pertain to a style of leadership that involves participative decision-making.

4. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

5. What is the primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary role of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting is to ensure the efficient operation of the unit. While enforcing hospital policies and overseeing patient care are important aspects of their role, the main responsibility lies in ensuring the smooth and effective functioning of the unit. Managing the financial aspects of the unit is also crucial, but it is not the primary role of a nurse manager, as their focus is more on operational efficiency and quality of care.

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