which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity
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Nursing Elites

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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

2. A new nurse manager is attempting to solve a management issue by using one solution after another until she solves the problem. This would be known as what type of method?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Trial and error is a method used by new managers to solve problems by trying different solutions until one is successful. In this scenario, the nurse manager is using a trial and error approach by attempting various solutions until the issue is resolved. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decision making involves making choices based on available information, experimentation involves testing hypotheses in a controlled setting, and analysis entails examining data and information to gain insights or draw conclusions, none of which directly reflect the iterative process of trial and error.

3. When should a critical pathway be revised?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.

4. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

5. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.

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