which action should the nurse take after a 36 year old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness which action should the nurse take after a 36 year old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. What should the nurse do after a 36-year-old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness, providing a snack of peanut butter and crackers is essential to prevent another episode of hypoglycemia. Peanut butter and crackers contain a combination of protein and carbohydrates, which can help stabilize the patient's blood glucose levels. This choice is the most appropriate immediate action to prevent recurrence of hypoglycemia in this scenario. Assessing for symptoms of hyperglycemia (choice A) is not the immediate priority after treating hypoglycemia. While orange juice or nonfat milk (choice C) can help raise blood sugar, they lack the sustained effect of protein found in peanut butter. Administering a continuous infusion of dextrose (choice D) is excessive and not indicated after the patient has already regained consciousness.

2. A Manager decides that setting goals will assist her in better utilizing her time. Which of the following are true regarding goal setting in the Manager role?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting goals is beneficial for a Manager as they provide direction and save time. Therefore, goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable to be effective. Choice B is incorrect as writing goals does not increase stress but rather helps in time management. Choice C is incorrect because vague goals can lead to confusion and lack of clarity. Choice D is also incorrect as setting goals is a productive activity that aids in time management and achievement.

3. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

4. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: Difficulty swallowing

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

5. Which of the following is a cause of edema?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased plasma proteins. Edema can be caused by decreased plasma proteins, which reduce the osmotic pressure that keeps fluid in the blood vessels. Hypotension (choice B) is low blood pressure and is not a direct cause of edema. Dehydration (choice C) involves a lack of body fluid, but it is not a direct cause of edema. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and not a direct cause of edema.

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