ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
- B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
- C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
- D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.
2. What behaviors can be observed before a person becomes violent? (EXCEPT)
- A. Wandering
- B. Tense shoulders and clenched fists
- C. Blank stare
- D. Positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before a person becomes violent, observable behaviors may include tense shoulders, clenched fists, a blank stare, and being positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back. Wandering is not typically associated with threatening behaviors signaling imminent violence. DelBel (2003) suggests that strategies such as relaxed body language, maintaining physical distance, and silence can help de-escalate an agitated individual's response.
3. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
4. A new manager is implementing an initiative with the desired outcome of having the unit run more smoothly. What quality is the manager demonstrating?
- A. Being unrealistic
- B. Being a change agent
- C. Being democratic
- D. Being authoritarian
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Being a change agent. The manager is demonstrating the quality of being a change agent by implementing an initiative aimed at improving the unit's operations. A change agent initiates and drives changes to enhance effectiveness and efficiency within the unit. Choice A is incorrect because the manager's actions are not described as unrealistic but rather proactive. Choice C, being democratic, is incorrect as it does not relate to the manager's initiative to improve unit operations. Choice D, being authoritarian, is also incorrect as the manager is not described as enforcing changes through strict control and power.
5. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?
- A. Direct patient care provider
- B. Administrator of healthcare facilities
- C. Consultant for nursing staff
- D. Policy maker in healthcare organizations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.
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