ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
- B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
- C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
- D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.
2. Who is the best person to describe the job to an applicant?
- A. Previous employee
- B. Human resource manager
- C. Nursing manager
- D. Chief operating officer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nursing manager is the most suitable person to describe the job to an applicant because they are directly involved in the day-to-day operations and requirements of the position. They have firsthand knowledge of the job responsibilities, expectations, and qualifications needed. Human resource managers are involved in recruitment but may not have the detailed operational knowledge that a nursing manager possesses. A previous employee may provide insights into the work environment but may not have a comprehensive understanding of the current job requirements. The chief operating officer oversees the organization's overall operations and strategy, so they may not have the specific details about the job to effectively describe it to an applicant.
3. What is the primary goal of evidence-based practice (EBP)?
- A. Reduce healthcare costs
- B. Improve patient outcomes
- C. Enhance clinical decision making
- D. Ensure patient safety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of evidence-based practice (EBP) is to enhance clinical decision making by integrating the best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient values. While improving patient outcomes is a significant result of EBP, the ultimate aim is to ensure that healthcare decisions are based on the most current, relevant, and reliable evidence. While reducing healthcare costs and ensuring patient safety are important in healthcare, they are not the primary goals of evidence-based practice.
4. How has advanced technology in health care, such as integrated health records, benefited nurses?
- A. Skip the assessment step of the nursing process
- B. Order medications
- C. Take blood samples
- D. Track patients' vital signs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Advanced technology in health care, like integrated health records, has enabled nurses to efficiently track patients' vital signs. This capability helps nurses monitor patients' health status closely and make informed decisions regarding their care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because technology does not replace the vital role of nurses in conducting assessments, ordering medications (typically done by prescribers), or collecting blood samples.
5. The staff nurse is experiencing what type of conflict when the babysitter calls to cancel on the day of an important committee meeting?
- A. Intergroup conflict
- B. Perceived conflict
- C. Role conflict
- D. Structural conflict
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict arises when one has conflicting responsibilities or obligations, such as being scheduled to work while also needing to care for children. In this scenario, the staff nurse faces a conflict between their role as a parent needing childcare and their role as a professional scheduled to present at a committee meeting. Intergroup conflict (A) involves disputes between different groups, not conflicting roles within an individual. Structural conflict (D) stems from issues within the organizational structure, not conflicting responsibilities. Perceived conflict (B) refers to misunderstandings or misinterpretations between parties, not conflicting roles.
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