Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?

• A. Command and control procedures
• B. Computers and data processing
• C. Common soldier tasks
• D. Communications and automation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a field medical element is not operational, training is essential to prepare for mobilization. Proficiency in MOS/ASI (Military Occupational Specialty/Area of Specialization) is crucial, along with proficiency in common soldier tasks. Common soldier tasks encompass fundamental skills and knowledge that are essential for operational readiness and mobilization. Options A, B, and D are not as directly related to individual readiness for mobilization in this context.

3. Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Low-fat
• D. High-protein

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

4. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?

• A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
• B. Erb’s point
• C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
• D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, morphine is the preferred analgesic due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is contraindicated in sickle cell disease due to its potential to cause a further decrease in blood flow. Choice B, Motrin (ibuprofen), is also not the ideal choice as NSAIDs can exacerbate renal complications in sickle cell patients. Choice C, Demerol (meperidine), is not recommended for sickle cell pain management due to its toxic metabolite accumulation which can cause seizures and other complications.

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