ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
2. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?
- A. High-protein foods
- B. High-fiber foods
- C. High-vitamin K foods
- D. High-calcium foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.
3. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?
- A. DVA
- B. TOE
- C. TDA
- D. NDMS
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized under a Table of Distribution and Allowances (TDA) structure. This organizational type outlines the personnel positions and equipment allocation within a unit. Choice A, 'DVA,' refers to the Department of Veterans Affairs and is not the organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, 'TOE,' stands for Table of Organization and Equipment which is more commonly used in a wartime setting to define unit structure and equipment requirements. Choice D, 'NDMS,' refers to the National Disaster Medical System which is not the typical organization for CONUS hospital military personnel during peacetime.
4. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?
- A. FSB
- B. CSH
- C. GH
- D. FH
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.
5. The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?
- A. Bone marrow transplant
- B. Splenectomy
- C. Frequent blood transfusions
- D. Liver biopsy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis as it helps prevent hemolysis and improve anemia. Removing the spleen reduces the destruction of the abnormal red blood cells. Choice A, Bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice C, Frequent blood transfusions, may be used to manage anemia in some cases but is not the primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice D, Liver biopsy, is not a treatment for hereditary spherocytosis; it is a procedure used to diagnose liver conditions, not related to this hematologic disorder.
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