Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:

• A. Folate
• B. Tyramine
• C. Potassium
• D. Vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tyramine. When individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) consume foods high in tyramine, it can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheeses, cured meats, and certain fermented foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Folate, potassium, and vitamin K are not typically contraindicated with the use of MAOIs.

3. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

4. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.

• A. Anxiety
• B. Exercise
• C. Smoking
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking primarily affects the health of the respiratory system in the long term but may not immediately impact the character of respirations. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choices A and B are correct as anxiety and exercise can lead to changes in the rate and depth of respirations.

5. What is the best position to measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Sitting
• C. Standing
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, the best position to ensure accurate and consistent measurements is the dorsal recumbent position. This position allows the legs to be comfortably positioned, with the individual lying on their back and legs extended. This facilitates accurate measurement of the circumference without the influence of gravity. Sitting and standing positions may not provide optimal conditions for accurate leg circumference measurements as they may not allow the legs to be fully extended. The supine position, although similar to dorsal recumbent, may not provide the same level of comfort and accuracy in leg circumference measurement for a client with bipedal edema.

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