Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?

• A. Preoccupation with calories
• B. Thick body hair
• C. Sore tongue
• D. Dry, brittle hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
• B. Perform active range of motion exercises
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform active range of motion exercises. When a client is on strict bed rest, performing range of motion exercises is a priority to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy. Option A may be important but not the priority compared to maintaining mobility. Option C is incorrect because elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is not necessary for a client on strict bed rest. Option D, providing a high-fiber diet, is also not the priority intervention compared to ensuring range of motion exercises are performed.

4. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?

• A. Specimen is collected after meals
• B. The nurse puts the Clinitest tablet into a test tube
• C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
• D. If the color becomes orange or red, it is considered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.

5. What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

• A. Explain that exacerbations will not occur in the summer
• B. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking
• C. Wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure
• D. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud’s phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud’s phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud’s phenomenon.

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