which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by low iron levels, vitamin B12 deficiency anemia by inadequate vitamin B12, and aplastic anemia by bone marrow failure.

3. The client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates the need for further teaching because regular use of laxatives can lead to dependence and is not recommended for hemorrhoids. Increased fiber intake and fluid consumption (Choice A) help prevent constipation, warm compresses and sitz baths (Choice B) provide relief, and using analgesic ointments or suppositories (Choice D) can help manage pain associated with hemorrhoids.

4. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.

5. When is Aspirin most effective when taken?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as taking aspirin on a full stomach may reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as fruit juice can sometimes interact with medications. Choice D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not optimize its absorption.

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