which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals, such as a client's neighbor (choice A) or improper delegation of nursing tasks to unlicensed personnel like UAPs (choice B), are violations of patient confidentiality and safety. Releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney (choice C) is a legal and appropriate action, not warranting disciplinary action. Therefore, choices A and B can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing, making option D the correct answer.

3. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.

4. During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized under a Table of Distribution and Allowances (TDA) structure. This organizational type outlines the personnel positions and equipment allocation within a unit. Choice A, 'DVA,' refers to the Department of Veterans Affairs and is not the organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, 'TOE,' stands for Table of Organization and Equipment which is more commonly used in a wartime setting to define unit structure and equipment requirements. Choice D, 'NDMS,' refers to the National Disaster Medical System which is not the typical organization for CONUS hospital military personnel during peacetime.

5. A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be problematic for patients with diabetes. These carbohydrates are quickly broken down and absorbed by the body, leading to sharp increases in blood sugar levels. In contrast, complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes because they are digested more slowly, resulting in a more gradual rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, complex carbohydrates, are a better option for diabetic patients compared to simple carbohydrates. Choice C, fiber-rich carbohydrates, can also be beneficial for individuals with diabetes as they help in regulating blood sugar levels. Choice D, all carbohydrates, is too broad of a statement as not all carbohydrates have the same impact on blood glucose levels.

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