ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
2. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?
- A. Iron absorption is reduced
- B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
- C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
- D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.
3. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client that was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. Option A is the correct choice because it marks the initial point in the hospitalization process where discharge planning should start. Options B, C, and D are not the ideal points to begin discharge planning. Option B only signifies a transfer within the hospital, while Option C relates to the patient's independence in activities of daily living, which is not directly linked to discharge planning. Option D, having the patient assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery, is unrelated to the timing of discharge planning.
4. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.
5. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?
- A. Calcium
- B. Iodine
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Iron
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones. A deficiency in iodine can lead to hypothyroidism. Calcium (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not directly related to thyroid function. Vitamin C (Choice C) is essential for the immune system and skin health but does not play a significant role in thyroid function. Iron (Choice D) is vital for red blood cell production and oxygen transport but is not specifically relevant to hypothyroidism.
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