ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
2. What condition should a patient on long-term steroid therapy be monitored for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Hypertension
- D. Osteoporosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis. Prolonged use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with steroid-induced diabetes rather than long-term steroid use. Hypothyroidism is not a typical complication of long-term steroid therapy. While steroids can contribute to hypertension, osteoporosis is a more prominent concern in this scenario.
3. The nurse is teaching the client with peripheral vascular disease. Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Keep the area between the toes dry.
- B. Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes.
- C. Cut toenails straight across.
- D. A,B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry to prevent moisture-related skin issues and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes to prevent injury and promote circulation. Cutting toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, but in this case, an arch cut can lead to injury. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making option D the most appropriate answer. Choice C is incorrect in this context.
4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
- A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
- B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
- C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
- D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?
- A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
- B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
- C. Managing ward or unit operations
- D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.
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