Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

• A. Increasing calcium intake
• B. Increasing phosphorus intake
• C. Decreasing calcium intake
• D. Administering phosphate binders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?

• A. Secure a clean container
• B. Discard the container if the outside becomes dirty
• C. Rinse the client's mouth with Listerine before collection
• D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.

3. What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?

• A. Area support medical battalions
• B. TOE units
• C. Ambulance exchange points
• D. Field hospitals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.

4. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Hold the medication
• B. Administer the digoxin
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Recheck the apical rate in 1 hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly used to treat heart failure by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. Since the heart rate is within the normal range, there is no need to hold the medication or notify the healthcare provider. Rechecking the apical rate in an hour is unnecessary as the heart rate is not alarming. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to administer the digoxin.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Call a code immediately
• B. Assess the client for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Continue to monitor the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.

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