which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

2. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.

4. The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.

5. The nurse understands that which characteristics are of anthrax? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous anthrax causes black eschar lesions, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect because it only includes information about cutaneous anthrax lesions but doesn't cover the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' it causes symptoms like severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are associated with pulmonary anthrax, not with gastrointestinal anthrax.

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