Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?

• A. Head circumference of 40 cm
• B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
• C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
• D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.

2. The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous antibiotics
• B. Apply warm moist packs every two hours
• C. Elevate the right foot on two pillows
• D. Teach the client about skin and foot care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this situation. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that can spread rapidly, especially in individuals with diabetes. Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial to prevent the infection from worsening and causing serious complications. Applying warm moist packs, elevating the foot, and teaching the client about skin and foot care are important interventions but should come after initiating antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection.

3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.

• A. Follows a vegan diet
• B. Smokes cigarettes
• C. Follows a vegetarian diet
• D. Follows a ketogenic diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to the generation of free radicals in the body, causing oxidative stress and consuming higher levels of antioxidants like vitamin C. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the increased need for vitamin C as seen in smokers.

5. Which medication should a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Antacids
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• D. Antihistamines

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers due to their effects on the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in such patients as it does not have the same ulcerogenic effects. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help alleviate symptoms by neutralizing stomach acid and are generally safe to use. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to exacerbate peptic ulcers and can be used safely for conditions like allergies.

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