Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects blood pressure?

• A. Obesity
• B. Age
• C. Stress
• D. Gender

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obesity is a primary factor that affects blood pressure. Excess body weight, especially when concentrated around the abdomen, can increase the risk of hypertension (high blood pressure) as it puts extra strain on the heart to pump blood around the body. This can lead to various cardiovascular complications and other health issues. Managing weight through a healthy diet and regular physical activity can help control blood pressure levels. Age, stress, and gender can also influence blood pressure, but obesity has a more direct and significant impact on increasing blood pressure levels compared to the other factors listed.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Individual training. Individual training involves preparing soldiers for specific tasks like survival on the battlefield. Accountability (choice A) refers to being answerable for one's actions, not directly related to training soldiers. Personal/professional development (choice B) focuses on growth and advancement of individuals, not specific training for battlefield survival. Military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical attributes and presentation of soldiers, not directly related to training them for survival.

3. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 32-year-old with diarrhea for 6 hours
• B. 2-year-old with 1 wet diaper in 24 hours
• C. 40-year-old with abdominal cramping
• D. 10-year-old who is nauseated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

4. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide to the client diagnosed with varicose veins who has received sclerotherapy?

• A. Walk 15 to 20 minutes three (3) times a day.
• B. Keep the legs in the dependent position when sitting.
• C. Remove compression bandages before going to bed.
• D. Perform Berger-Allen exercises (4) times a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to walk 15 to 20 minutes three times a day. Walking helps improve circulation and reduces the risk of complications following sclerotherapy. Choice B, keeping the legs in the dependent position when sitting, is incorrect as it can increase venous pressure. Choice C, removing compression bandages before going to bed, is incorrect as compression should be maintained as per healthcare provider's instructions. Choice D, performing Berger-Allen exercises four times a day, is incorrect as these exercises may not be specifically recommended post-sclerotherapy.

5. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
• B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
• C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
• D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.

Similar Questions