ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
- A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
- B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
- C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
- D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.
2. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin B12
- D. Vitamin B1
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.
3. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Antacids
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- D. Antihistamines
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which help protect the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in patients with peptic ulcers. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help in symptom relief by neutralizing stomach acid. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to worsen peptic ulcers and are generally safe for use in patients with this condition.
4. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles?
- A. Patient holding squad
- B. Surgical squad
- C. Ambulance squad
- D. Area support squad
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Ambulance Squad is the module composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles. This squad is responsible for providing medical care during transportation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the description provided in the question. The Patient Holding Squad focuses on a different aspect of patient care, the Surgical Squad is more specialized in surgical procedures, and the Area Support Squad provides a different type of support.
5. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Fish and cottage cheese
- D. Turkey slices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.
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