Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?

• A. Bag-valve-mask system
• B. Sterile gauze and saline
• C. Soft arm restraints
• D. Endotracheal tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.

2. A post-op patient has an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient’s respiratory rate declines to 8 breaths/minute. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
• C. Methyprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
• D. Protamine Sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects, both adverse and therapeutic, of opioid narcotic analgesics.

3. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

4. A school-age child has peripheral edema. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to confirm peripheral edema?

• A. Palpate the dorsum of the child's feet
• B. Weigh the child daily using the same scale
• C. Assess the child's skin turgor
• D. Observe the child for periorbital swelling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm peripheral edema in a child, the nurse should palpate the dorsum of the child's feet by pressing a fingertip against a bony prominence for 5 seconds. This assessment helps detect the presence of pitting edema, which is characterized by an indentation that remains after the pressure is released.

5. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

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