ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
- B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
- D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.
2. Which patient should be most carefully assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance among those receiving the following drugs?
- A. lithium (Eskalith)
- B. clozapine (Clozaril)
- C. diazepam (Valium)
- D. amitriptyline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is known to cause polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst), which can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, patients receiving lithium should be carefully monitored for signs of fluid and electrolyte disturbances to prevent any potential complications.
3. Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?
- A. Detoxification center
- B. Home care
- C. Assertive community team
- D. Twelve-step recovery group
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.
4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Weight gain
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Suicidal thoughts
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
5. Which of the following are common symptoms of major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Insomnia
- B. Feelings of hopelessness
- C. Increased energy
- D. Difficulty concentrating
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. While individuals with major depressive disorder often experience fatigue and low energy levels, increased energy is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, 'Increased energy' is the correct choice that doesn't apply to major depressive disorder. Choices A, B, and D are all commonly seen in individuals with major depressive disorder, making them incorrect answers.
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