Nursing Elites

1. During a mental health assessment on an adult client, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

• A. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship
• B. Achieving a sense of self-confidence
• C. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential
• D. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential reflects self-actualization. This level represents achieving personal growth, self-improvement, and reaching one's full potential, indicating optimal mental health. Choices A, B, and D represent lower levels of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Maintaining a long-term relationship indicates belongingness and love needs, achieving self-confidence pertains to esteem needs, and developing a sense of purpose relates to self-esteem and self-actualization needs, but they are not at the pinnacle of self-actualization as in choice C.

2. A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which is an appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a goal for the client to report a decrease in depressive symptoms is appropriate as it is specific, measurable, and achievable in the short term. Monitoring changes in depressive symptoms provides valuable feedback on the effectiveness of the treatment plan. While establishing a sleep routine, improving social interactions, and setting realistic goals for the future are important aspects of recovery, they are more suitable as intermediate or long-term goals. In the context of short-term goals, focusing on symptom reduction can provide immediate feedback on the client's progress and help adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

3. Which of the following is identified as a psychoneurotic response to severe anxiety as it appears in the DSM-5?

• A. Somatic symptom disorder
• B. Grief responses
• C. Psychosis
• D. Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somatic symptom disorder. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by preoccupation with physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology. One of the diagnostic criteria is a high level of anxiety about health concerns or illness. In the DSM-5, somatic symptom disorders are classified under the category of somatic symptom and related disorders, which encompass conditions where psychological factors play a significant role in the development, exacerbation, or maintenance of physical symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Grief responses, psychosis, and bipolar disorder are not specifically categorized as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety in the DSM-5.

4. A client has been prescribed diazepam (Valium) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the sedative effects and increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset, but avoiding alcohol is crucial to ensure safe and effective use of diazepam. Choice B is partially correct, as taking the medication with food can indeed help with stomach upset, but it is not as crucial as avoiding alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose is dangerous and should never be done without healthcare provider approval.

5. A client prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.
• B. I need to maintain a consistent sodium intake.
• C. I should drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated.
• D. I can take over-the-counter medications without consulting my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking over-the-counter medications without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended for clients on lithium therapy as there can be potential interactions between lithium and certain medications. It is crucial for clients on lithium to always consult their healthcare provider before taking any over-the-counter medications to ensure the safety and effectiveness of their treatment. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that align with managing lithium therapy, emphasizing the importance of dietary restrictions and adequate hydration, as well as monitoring sodium intake to maintain the therapeutic effects of lithium.

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