Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 fatty acids?

• A. Salmon
• B. Chicken
• C. Spinach
• D. Eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Salmon is the correct answer as it is a rich source of omega-3 fatty acids, specifically EPA and DHA, which are known to be beneficial for heart health. Chicken, spinach, and eggs do not contain significant levels of omega-3 fatty acids compared to salmon. While eggs do contain some omega-3s, the amount is considerably lower than what is found in fatty fish like salmon.

2. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.

3. A client who was normal weight before pregnancy asks about the recommended weight gain during pregnancy. What should the nurse advise?

• A. 18-40 pounds
• B. 25-35 pounds
• C. 11-20 pounds
• D. 15-25 pounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 25-35 pounds. According to standard prenatal guidelines, a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight is recommended to gain between 25-35 pounds during pregnancy. This weight gain is important for the overall health of the mother and the developing baby. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the recommended weight gain range for a client with a normal pre-pregnancy weight.

4. What type of diet would most likely benefit a patient with cystic fibrosis?

• A. Low sodium
• B. Low fat
• C. Clear liquid
• D. High calorie, high protein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with cystic fibrosis often have malabsorption issues, leading to increased energy needs. A high-calorie, high-protein diet is recommended to help meet these needs, support growth, and maintain overall health. Choices A, B, and C do not address the specific dietary requirements associated with cystic fibrosis, making them less beneficial for these patients.

5. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

• A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
• B. To check for any obvious malignancy
• C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
• D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

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