Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following definitions best describes gastritis?

• A. Erosion of the gastric mucosa
• B. Inflammation of a diverticulum
• C. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa
• D. Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Inflammation of the gastric mucosa.' Gastritis is characterized by inflammation of the stomach lining, specifically the gastric mucosa. This inflammation can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, alcohol, or autoimmune diseases. Choice A, 'Erosion of the gastric mucosa,' is incorrect because erosion refers to the wearing away of tissue rather than inflammation. Choice B, 'Inflammation of a diverticulum,' is incorrect because gastritis specifically involves inflammation of the stomach lining, not a diverticulum. Choice D, 'Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus,' describes gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which is different from gastritis.

2. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

3. A client with which of the following conditions may be likely to develop rectal cancer?

• A. Adenomatous polyps
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Hemorrhoids
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Adenomatous polyps are a known risk factor for the development of rectal cancer.

4. The nurse assesses the client's understanding of the relationship between body position and gastroesophageal reflux. Which response would indicate that the client understands measures to avoid problems with reflux while sleeping?

• A. I can elevate the foot of the bed 4 to 6 inches.
• B. I can sleep on my stomach with my head turned to the left.
• C. I can sleep on my back without a pillow under my head.
• D. I can elevate the head of the bed 4 to 6 inches.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated encourages movement of food through the esophagus by gravity. By fostering esophageal acid clearance, gravity helps keep the acidic pepsin and alkaline biliary secretions from contacting the esophagus. Elevating the foot of the bed does not affect clearance of esophageal acid. Sleeping on the stomach with the head turned to the left will not decrease reflux incidence. Sleeping flat without a pillow under the head does not enhance clearance.

5. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohn’s disease?

• A. Ascending colon
• B. Descending colon
• C. Sigmoid colon
• D. Terminal ileum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The terminal ileum is the most common location for Crohn's disease.

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