Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis?

• A. Cholelithiasis
• B. Gastritis
• C. Perforated ulcer
• D. Incarcerated hernia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A perforated ulcer is most likely to directly cause peritonitis due to the leakage of gastric contents into the peritoneal cavity.

2. The client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse would assess this client for pain that is:

• A. Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back.
• B. Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin.
• C. Burning and aching, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the umbilicus.
• D. Burning and aching, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the hip.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute pancreatitis typically presents with severe, unrelenting pain in the epigastric area that radiates to the back. This pain is due to inflammation and autodigestion of the pancreas.

3. A female client complains of gnawing epigastric pain for a few hours after meals. At times, when the pain is severe, vomiting occurs. Specific tests are indicated to rule out:

• A. Cancer of the stomach
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Chronic gastritis
• D. Pylorospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific tests are indicated to rule out cancer of the stomach when a client complains of gnawing epigastric pain and vomiting after meals.

4. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that

• A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
• B. This is a normal, expected event.
• C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
• D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.

5. A 40-year-old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. He is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist (cimetidine), antacids, and diet. The nurse doing discharge planning will teach him that the action of cimetidine is to:

• A. Reduce gastric acid output
• B. Protect the ulcer surface
• C. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl)
• D. Inhibit vagus nerve stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps to treat peptic ulcer disease.

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