ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System Quizlet
1. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?
- A. Assessing for pain
- B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
- C. Providing discharge teaching
- D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.
2. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
- B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
- C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
- D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.
3. During a home visit to a family of three: a mother, father, and their child, the mother tells the community nurse that the father (who is not present) had hit the child on several occasions when he was drinking. The mother further explains that she has talked her husband into going to Alcoholics Anonymous and asks the nurse not to interfere so her husband won’t get angry and refuse treatment. Which of the following is the best response of the nurse?
- A. The nurse agrees not to interfere if the husband attends an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting that evening.
- B. The nurse commends the mother’s efforts and agrees to let her handle things.
- C. The nurse commends the mother’s efforts and also contacts protective services.
- D. The nurse confronts the mother’s failure to protect the child.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the best response for the nurse is to commend the mother's efforts in seeking help for her husband by encouraging him to attend Alcoholics Anonymous. However, it is crucial for the nurse to also contact protective services to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Option A is incorrect as it is not appropriate to condition non-interference on the husband attending a meeting that evening. Option B is incorrect because solely letting the mother handle things might put the child at risk. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to ensure the child's safety through involving protective services.
4. What is a condition where the heart beats too fast, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Ventricular fibrillation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, which can decrease the heart's efficiency in pumping blood. Bradycardia, on the other hand, refers to a slow heart rate, which is the opposite of what is described in the question. Arrhythmia is a general term for any irregularity in the heart's rhythm, not necessarily specifically related to a fast heart rate. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart's lower chambers quiver instead of pumping blood effectively, but it is not specifically characterized by a fast heart rate.
5. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
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