Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client following a Billroth II procedure. On review of the postoperative orders, which of the following if prescribed, should the nurse question and verify?

• A. Irrigating the nasogastric tube
• B. Coughing and deep breathing exercises
• C. Leg exercises
• D. Early ambulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Billroth II procedure the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically ordered by the physician. In this situation the nurse should clarify the order. Coughing and deep breathing exercises, leg exercises, and early ambulation are appropriate postoperative interventions.

3. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

4. Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical management of a client with peritonitis?

• A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
• B. Electrolyte replacement
• C. I.V. fluids
• D. Regular diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A regular diet is not included in the medical management of peritonitis, which requires bowel rest and IV fluids.

5. Stephen is a 62 y.o. patient that has had a liver biopsy. Which of the following groups of signs alert you to a possible pneumothorax?

• A. Dyspnea and reduced or absent breath sounds over the right lung
• B. Tachycardia, hypotension, and cool, clammy skin
• C. Fever, rebound tenderness, and abdominal rigidity
• D. Redness, warmth, and drainage at the biopsy site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dyspnea and reduced or absent breath sounds over the right lung are signs of a possible pneumothorax.

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