which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner np
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1. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

2. A manager identifies that he is spending more time than desired on completing repetitive paperwork. Which of the following would be appropriate ways to address this issue? (EXCEPT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Delegating staff evaluations to a staff nurse, even if experienced, is not appropriate as it falls outside their scope and responsibility. Choices A, C, and D are suitable ways to address the issue of spending excessive time on repetitive paperwork. Combining data reports, assigning the preliminary draft of the schedule to a subcommittee of staff nurses, and saying no to inappropriate paperwork assignments are all effective strategies to streamline processes and reduce managerial workload.

3. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

4. What behaviors can be observed before a person becomes violent? (EXCEPT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before a person becomes violent, observable behaviors may include tense shoulders, clenched fists, a blank stare, and being positioned with one foot in back and an arm pulled back. Wandering is not typically associated with threatening behaviors signaling imminent violence. DelBel (2003) suggests that strategies such as relaxed body language, maintaining physical distance, and silence can help de-escalate an agitated individual's response.

5. In order to minimize or avoid negative outcomes as a result of the violation and disciplinary action, the employee should offer which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In order to minimize or avoid negative outcomes resulting from a violation and disciplinary action, the employee should offer suggestions. By providing suggestions, the employee demonstrates a willingness to improve and prevent future occurrences. Offering excuses (choice A) may deflect responsibility and not address the issue at hand. Discipline (choice B) is the action taken by the employer, not the employee. Rules (choice D) are guidelines to follow, but in this context, offering suggestions for improvement is more relevant.

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