Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

• A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
• B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
• C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
• D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

2. A nurse is admitting a new client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take while performing medication reconciliation?

• A. Compare the client's home medications with the provider's prescriptions
• B. Place the client's home medication bottles in a secure location
• C. Call the pharmacy to determine whether the client's medications are available
• D. Verify the client's name on their identification bracelet with the medication administration record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client's home medications with the provider's prescriptions to ensure accurate and safe administration. This process helps identify any discrepancies or potential interactions. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client's home medication bottles in a secure location is not part of medication reconciliation. Choice C is incorrect as calling the pharmacy to determine medication availability is not related to reconciling medications. Choice D is incorrect as verifying the client's name on their identification bracelet with the medication administration record is part of the identification process, not medication reconciliation.

3. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

4. For a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements, which goal is most important?

• A. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%.
• B. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss.
• C. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.
• D. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important goal for a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and imbalanced nutrition due to more than body requirements is to reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal directly addresses the management of diabetes and is crucial in preventing complications associated with high blood sugar levels. Choice B focuses on weight loss, which may be beneficial but is not as critical as controlling blood sugar levels. Choice C, distributing calories throughout the day, is important for glycemic control but not as immediate as reaching a target HbA1c level. Choice D, stating the reasons for eliminating simple sugars, is a good educational goal but not as urgent as achieving glycemic control.

5. The unit manager of a 32-bed medical-surgical unit allows the staff nurses to do self-governance for scheduling, client care assignments, and committee work. The manager would be considered which type of leader?

• A. Autocratic
• B. Democratic
• C. Bureaucratic
• D. Laissez-faire

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Laissez-faire. In a laissez-faire leadership style, the manager exerts very little control and allows the staff to have a high degree of autonomy in decision-making and problem-solving. This type of leader provides guidance when needed but largely leaves the decision-making process to the staff. Autocratic leadership (choice A) is characterized by centralizing decision-making authority, democratic leadership (choice B) involves shared decision-making, and bureaucratic leadership (choice C) relies on adherence to rules and procedures.

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