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1. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.
2. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B: Venturi mask
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
3. Which statement about epidural analgesia is true?
- A. It numbs the entire lower half of the body.
- B. It limits pain reduction to the pelvic region.
- C. It strengthens uterine contractions.
- D. It shortens the length of labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement about epidural analgesia is that it limits pain reduction to the pelvic region by blocking nerve signals from that specific area, providing pain relief during labor and delivery. Choice A is incorrect because epidural analgesia does not numb the entire lower half of the body. Choice C is incorrect because epidural analgesia does not strengthen uterine contractions; in fact, it may sometimes weaken them. Choice D is incorrect because epidural analgesia does not shorten the length of labor; it can sometimes prolong labor.
4. If a staff member does not respond to discipline, the manager must ______ employment.
- A. Terminate
- B. Confront
- C. Describe the staff nurse's behavior that violated the policy
- D. Determine the employee's awareness of the policy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an employee does not respond to disciplinary measures, termination may be necessary. This is a last resort for managers when other strategies to improve performance have failed. Terminating an employee means ending their employment with the organization. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the question specifically asks what action the manager must take when an employee does not respond to discipline. Confronting the employee, describing the behavior, or determining awareness of the policy are steps that may precede termination but are not the final action to be taken.
5. The nurse is teaching a parent of a 6-month-old infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) before discharge. What instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed in the crib to a 90-degree angle while the infant is sleeping.
- B. Hold the infant in the prone position after a feeding.
- C. Discontinue breastfeeding so that a formula and rice cereal mixture can be used.
- D. Prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) should be given 30 minutes before feedings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is an H2 blocker that reduces stomach acid, helping manage GER. Holding the infant in the prone position is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding should not be discontinued unless advised by a physician. Elevating the head to 90 degrees is excessive.
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