Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who received an IV fluid bolus for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume excess?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Slow capillary refill
• D. Weak, thready pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Distended neck veins.' Distended neck veins are a sign of fluid volume excess, indicating an overload of fluids in the body. This can be caused by excessive fluid administration. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with fluid volume deficit. Slow capillary refill (choice C) and a weak, thready pulse (choice D) are also signs of decreased fluid volume, not fluid volume excess.

2. A typical budget takes time to prepare. What timetable should the nurse manager plan for the budgeting process?

• A. 9-12 months
• B. 3-6 months
• C. 1-2 months
• D. Over two years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3-6 months. The process of preparing a typical budget usually takes around 3-6 months. This allows enough time for gathering financial data, analyzing expenses, projecting revenues, and finalizing the budget. Choice A (9-12 months) is too long for a typical budgeting process in most settings. Choice C (1-2 months) is too short to adequately complete all the necessary steps in the budgeting process. Choice D (Over two years) is excessive and not practical for the timeline of a standard budget preparation.

3. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

• A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
• B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
• C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
• D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One function of the advance directive is to appoint a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes for medical treatment to the medical and nursing team if the client is unable to do so.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

5. Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered care?

• A. Provider-centered decision making
• B. Timely discharge
• C. Respect for patient preferences
• D. Focusing on clinical outcomes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respect for patient preferences. Patient-centered care focuses on involving patients in their care decisions and respecting their preferences. Choice A, provider-centered decision making, goes against the concept of patient-centered care as it prioritizes the provider over the patient. Timely discharge, choice B, is important but not a defining component of patient-centered care. Focusing on clinical outcomes, choice D, is essential in healthcare but does not solely represent patient-centered care, which is more about personalized care and involving patients in decision-making.

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