Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey?

• A. To improve patient outcomes
• B. To evaluate nursing performance
• C. To measure patient satisfaction
• D. To assess healthcare facilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey is to measure patient satisfaction. These surveys aim to gather feedback directly from patients regarding their experiences and perceptions of the healthcare services they have received. While patient satisfaction may impact outcomes indirectly, the primary goal of the survey is not to directly improve patient outcomes, making choice A incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because patient satisfaction surveys are not primarily focused on evaluating nursing performance specifically. Choice D is also incorrect because the main focus of the survey is on the satisfaction of patients rather than assessing healthcare facilities.

2. A nurse is assessing a client's readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. "I can concentrate best in the morning."
• B. "It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home."
• C. "I'm wondering why I need to learn this."
• D. "You will have to talk to my partner about this."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "You will have to talk to my partner about this." This response indicates that the client is willing to involve their partner in the learning process, showing readiness to take responsibility and engage in the education. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate potential barriers to learning: A indicates a preference for learning time but does not show active involvement, B focuses on external factors hindering learning, and C reflects a lack of understanding or motivation for the learning.

3. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

4. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
• B. Administer IV potassium supplements
• C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
• D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

• A. Direct patient care provider
• B. Administrator of healthcare facilities
• C. Consultant for nursing staff
• D. Policy maker in healthcare organizations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

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