ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following are cultural aspects of mental illness? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Local or cultural norms define pathological behavior.
- B. The higher the social class the greater the recognition of mental illness behaviors.
- C. Psychiatrists typically see patients when the family can no longer deny the illness.
- D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The fewer ties that a group has with mainstream society, the greater the likelihood of a negative response by society to mental illness. Coercive treatments and involuntary hospitalizations are more common in this population.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
- B. Encourage the client to walk every 2 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.
3. In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?
- A. Denver II Developmental Screening
- B. Tanner staging
- C. Antibody testing
- D. Nursing process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
5. The nurse is planning education about appropriate protein food choices for a client who has recently been prescribed a renal diet. Which protein food items should the nurse include in the education?
- A. Yogurt, seeds, and lentils
- B. Beef, bacon, and nuts
- C. Peanut butter, beans, and peas
- D. Poultry, eggs, and fish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Poultry, eggs, and fish. These protein sources are high-quality proteins suitable for a renal diet as they provide essential amino acids without excessive amounts of potassium or phosphorus. Choice A, yogurt, seeds, and lentils, may be high in potassium and phosphorus, which could be restricted in a renal diet. Choice B, beef, bacon, and nuts, are also high in phosphorus and may not be ideal for a renal diet. Choice C, peanut butter, beans, and peas, are high in potassium and phosphorus, making them less suitable for a renal diet.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99