ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following actions should be taken to use a wide base support when assisting a client to get up in a chair?
- A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift
- B. Face the client, bend knees, and place hands on the client’s forearm and lift
- C. Spread the feet apart
- D. Tighten the pelvic muscles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spread the feet apart. When assisting a client to get up in a chair, it is crucial to use a wide base of support to maintain stability and prevent injuries. Spreading the feet apart provides a broader base, increasing balance and support for both the client and the caregiver. This position helps distribute the weight evenly and allows for better control when assisting the client in moving. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bending at the waist, placing arms under the client's arms, tightening pelvic muscles, or placing hands on the client's forearm do not provide the necessary wide base support needed for stability and safety during the transfer process.
2. What is the primary goal of performing a bed bath?
- A. To cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to the client who must remain in bed
- B. To expose the necessary parts of the body
- C. To develop skills in bed bath
- D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of performing a bed bath is to cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to clients who are unable to leave their bed. This helps maintain their hygiene, promotes skin health, and enhances their overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose is not to expose body parts but to provide hygiene and comfort. Choice C is incorrect as the main goal is client care, not skill development. Choice D is incorrect as checking body temperature is not the main purpose of a bed bath.
3. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...
- A. On the client's skin
- B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
- C. Under the client's tongue
- D. On the client's conjunctiva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.
4. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
- B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
- D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.
5. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
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