ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client’s body temperature?
- A. Oral
- B. Axillary
- C. Arterial line
- D. Rectal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases where the oral route is contraindicated due to oral surgery or altered consciousness, the rectal method is preferred for the most accurate body temperature reading. This method is particularly useful when the skin is flushed and warm, as it provides a reliable reflection of core body temperature despite external factors affecting the skin temperature. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature due to variations caused by environmental factors and technique. Arterial line temperature monitoring is invasive and not typically used for routine temperature assessment.
2. When is additional Vitamin C not required?
- A. Infancy
- B. Young adulthood
- C. Childhood
- D. Pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin C requirements are increased during infancy, childhood, and pregnancy due to growth and development. However, during young adulthood, the body generally requires a consistent amount of Vitamin C as it is not undergoing rapid growth or physiological changes that necessitate an increase in Vitamin C intake.
3. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. You might notice yellowing of your skin.
- B. You might experience pain in your joints.
- C. You might notice tingling of your hands.
- D. You might experience loss of appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
- B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
- C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.
5. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Antiviral
- D. Beta2 agonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access