ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?
- A. Monitor blood glucose
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Passing small clots in the urine.
- B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
- C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
- D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.
3. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant.
- B. You should discuss your feelings with your provider.
- C. Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?
- D. When did you start having these feelings?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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