which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.

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