what is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client stating they should only take the inhaler when feeling short of breath indicates a need for further teaching. Clients with asthma should use their inhaler as prescribed, not just when short of breath. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good asthma management practices. Choice A indicates understanding of using the albuterol inhaler before exercise to prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice B mentions the importance of not overusing the inhaler, which can indicate poor asthma control. Choice D shows awareness of rinsing the mouth after using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent oral thrush.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.

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