what is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

2. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.

3. What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences a fall in the hospital?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient for injuries. When a patient experiences a fall in the hospital, the immediate concern is to check for any injuries that may require urgent care. Calling for help can be done after assessing the patient to ensure appropriate assistance is provided. Documenting the fall is important for the patient's medical record, but it is not the most immediate action needed. Notifying the healthcare provider can come after the initial assessment to update them on the situation.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client about digoxin is to 'Take your pulse before taking this medication.' This is essential because clients taking digoxin need to monitor their pulse to detect signs of bradycardia, a common adverse effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because digoxin is usually recommended to be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset. Option B is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option D is incorrect because contacting the provider for visual changes is important, but monitoring the pulse is crucial for digoxin administration.

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