ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
- B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
- C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
- D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.
2. While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.
3. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?
- A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
- C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
- D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.
4. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?
- A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
- B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
- C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
- D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
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