Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

3. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.

4. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?

• A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
• B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
• C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
• D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.

5. The healthcare provider is reviewing the medication orders for a client with angina pectoris. Which medication is typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Nitroglycerin
• C. Atenolol
• D. Simvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is the medication typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. It works by dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow, and reducing the heart's workload, hence relieving angina symptoms. Aspirin is often used to prevent blood clots, not specifically to prevent angina attacks. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to manage high blood pressure and chest pain but is not typically prescribed to prevent angina attacks. Simvastatin is a statin medication primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for preventing angina attacks.

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