Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

2. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply cold compresses to the affected extremity.
• B. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart.
• D. Keep the affected extremity dependent when sitting.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return, reduces swelling, and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying cold compresses (choice A) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition. Massaging the affected extremity (choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications. Keeping the affected extremity dependent when sitting (choice D) can hinder venous return and exacerbate the DVT.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Sedation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following findings indicate fluid overload?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hypotension
• D. Thready pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. When fluid accumulates in the lungs due to overload, it can lead to respiratory distress. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A) Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload; C) Hypotension refers to low blood pressure and is not a typical finding in fluid overload; D) Thready pulse may indicate poor perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid overload.

5. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bounding pulses
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Pale, cool skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.

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