Nursing Elites

1. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive sweating.
• B. Increased urinary frequency.
• C. Dry cough.
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of sertraline that the nurse should include in the teaching is excessive sweating. Sertraline is known to cause this side effect in some individuals. Increased urinary frequency (choice B) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of sertraline. Dry cough (choice C) and metallic taste in the mouth (choice D) are also not typically associated with sertraline use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the potential adverse effect of excessive sweating.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Clamp the catheter.
• B. Administer a fluid bolus.
• C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
• D. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Increase oxytocin infusion.
• B. Decrease oxytocin infusion.
• C. Maintain oxytocin infusion.
• D. Discontinue oxytocin infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.

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