ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Check for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Decreased peripheral edema.
- C. Increased jugular venous distention.
- D. Increased heart rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.
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