Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
• B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
• C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
• D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

3. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Monitor serum creatinine
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor urine output
• D. Monitor potassium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

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