Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

2. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

3. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

4. Which food should be avoided by a child with acute glomerulonephritis to prevent hyperkalemia, as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Dairy products
• B. Whole-grain cereals
• C. Organ meats
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium, which can contribute to hyperkalemia in individuals with acute glomerulonephritis. It is essential to limit potassium intake to prevent further complications associated with high potassium levels in the blood.

5. A child is being assessed for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Polyuria
• C. Hypertension
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), hypertension is a common finding due to fluid retention and decreased kidney function. This condition often presents with hypertension as a result of sodium and water retention, as well as reduced glomerular filtration rate. Hematuria, not diarrhea, is also a common symptom of APSGN due to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Polyuria, an increase in urine output, is not a typical finding in APSGN unless severe kidney damage leads to decreased urine concentrating ability.

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