ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. Which is the best description of a full-liquid diet?
- A. Most suitable for individuals with an ileostomy
- B. Suitable for individuals with lactose intolerance
- C. Contains low saturated fat and high fiber
- D. Provides adequate nutrients and is easily digested
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a full-liquid diet is designed to provide adequate nutrients while being easily digested. Choices A and B are incorrect because a full-liquid diet is not specifically tailored for individuals with an ileostomy or lactose intolerance. Choice C is also incorrect as it describes characteristics that are not defining features of a full-liquid diet.
2. Name 4 of the 12 discussed groups at risk for nutritional deficiencies.
- A. Elderly
- B. Low income
- C. Vegans
- D. Chronic disease, alcoholics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elderly. The other choices provided, low income, vegans, and chronic disease, alcoholics, are also at risk for nutritional deficiencies but the question specifically asks for 4 groups out of the 12 discussed. The 12 groups at risk for nutritional deficiencies include the elderly, low income individuals, vegans, chronic disease, alcoholics, smokers, periods of growth, individuals with medical conditions, physical stress, physiological stress, those on polypharmacy, and those with inadequate intake. The question focuses on identifying 4 out of these 12 groups, making 'Elderly' the correct choice.
3. What are the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Uremia
- C. Infection
- D. Low blood lipids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infection is a common manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. This is due to the loss of immunoglobulins in the urine, which weakens the body's immune defenses. Dehydration (Choice A) and uremia (Choice B) can be symptoms of kidney dysfunction but are not specific manifestations of nephrotic syndrome. Low blood lipids (Choice D) is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome typically results in high, not low, blood lipid levels due to the body's attempt to replace lost proteins.
4. What laboratory value would be considered a high-risk measure for coronary heart disease assessment?
- A. triglycerides > 150 mg/dL
- B. BMI > 31
- C. LDL cholesterol < 128 mg/dL
- D. blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: BMI > 31. A BMI over 31 is considered a high-risk factor for coronary heart disease as it indicates obesity, which is strongly linked to cardiovascular issues. Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL (choice A) can contribute to heart disease risk but are not as specific as BMI in assessing overall risk. LDL cholesterol < 128 mg/dL (choice C) is actually a desirable level, indicating lower risk. A blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg (choice D) is within normal range and not a high-risk measure specifically for coronary heart disease.
5. Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes of population groups, not individuals?
- A. Old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
- B. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
- C. New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
- D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is specifically designed to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes for population groups, not for individuals. The Old and New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) are meant for individuals, not groups, as they provide guidelines for specific nutrient intake levels for healthy individuals. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is used to set the highest level of nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects for most individuals in a group, which is different from assessing nutrient adequacy for groups.
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