Nursing Elites

1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

2. When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process
• B. As soon as the client's condition is stable
• C. After consulting with the client's family
• D. During the initial team conference

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.

3. What are the key elements essential to the implementation of case management? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Collaborative practice teams
• B. Established critical pathways
• C. Quality management system
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Established critical pathways, collaborative practice teams, and quality management systems are indeed key elements essential to the implementation of case management. Collaborative practice teams allow for multidisciplinary collaboration, established critical pathways help guide patient care, and a quality management system ensures that care provided meets established standards. Choice A, collaborative practice teams, is correct as they are fundamental for effective case management, involving various professionals working together. Choice B, established critical pathways, is also correct as they provide a structured approach to managing patient care. Choice C, quality management system, is correct as it ensures that care is delivered at high standards and continuously monitored for improvement. Therefore, all these elements are crucial for successful case management implementation.

4. Which of the following types of HMOs (Health Maintenance Organizations) contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?

• A. Staff model
• B. Point of service model
• C. Network model
• D. Group model

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Network model. This type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs. In a Network model, multiple IPAs work together to provide healthcare services to the members. Choice A, the Staff model, involves physicians who are employees of the HMO. Choice B, the Point of Service model, allows members to seek care outside the network at a higher cost. Choice D, the Group model, does not specifically contract with IPAs.

5. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

• A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
• B. using low doses of regular insulin
• C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
• D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.

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