Nursing Elites

1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

2. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering vaccinations
• B. Performing a surgical procedure
• C. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices
• D. Prescribing medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.

3. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

4. An RN�s current patient and family have presented her with an ethical dilemma. What is the first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem?

• A. Planning
• B. Assessment
• C. Evaluation
• D. Implementation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem is assessment.

5. Which of the following is true regarding health care systems today?

• A. They are all managed care organizations.
• B. They are all privately owned.
• C. Only HMOs are profitable.
• D. There are multiple types of organizations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'There are multiple types of organizations.' This statement is true as there are various health care delivery systems in today's world, including but not limited to managed care organizations, privately owned facilities, and other models. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because not all health care systems are managed care organizations, privately owned, or only profitable if they are HMOs. Health care systems can vary in ownership, management, and profitability, making choice D the most accurate.

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