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1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?
- A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
- C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
- D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.
2. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam
- A. every 2 years
- B. as soon as possible
- C. when the patient is 39 years old
- D. within the first year after diagnosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.
3. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
- A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
- B. using low doses of regular insulin
- C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
- D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.
4. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
5. An RN enters a patient�s room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the health-care professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?
- A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
- B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
- C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
- D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verbal or physical detainment of a client who desires to leave the institution is false imprisonment.
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