Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. A nurse enters a client's room and finds them on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client was trying to get out of bed and fell over the side rail onto the floor. Which of the following statements should the nurse document about this incident?

• A. Incident report completed.
• B. Client climbed over the side rails.
• C. Client was trying to get out of bed.
• D. Client found lying on floor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Client was trying to get out of bed." This statement accurately reflects the sequence of events leading to the client's fall and provides crucial information for assessing the situation. Choice A is incorrect because documenting the completion of an incident report is not relevant to describing the incident itself. Choice B incorrectly states that the client climbed over the side rails, which is not supported by the information provided. Choice D is too vague and does not provide details about the client's actions prior to falling.

3. One of the critical elements in interviewing is:

• A. Time management during the interview.
• B. Involving others in the interview process.
• C. Choosing the interview location.
• D. Developing an interview guide.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Developing an interview guide is a critical element in interviewing as it allows for a systematic approach. An interview guide helps the interviewer stay on track, ensures important topics are covered, and provides consistency in questioning. Options A, B, and C are not as crucial as developing an interview guide. Time management during the interview is important but not the critical element being addressed in this question. Involving others may be beneficial in some cases, but it is not a fundamental element of interviewing. While choosing a suitable interview location is essential for a conducive environment, it is not as central as having a structured interview guide.

4. What is a common method used to collect work activity information from an applicant?

• A. Self-report logs
• B. Work sample questions
• C. Motion studies
• D. Interviewing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Work sample questions are a common method used to collect work activity information from an applicant. This method allows employers to assess an applicant's skills and abilities by having them perform tasks that simulate actual job duties. Self-report logs (Choice A) rely on applicants' self-disclosure, which may not always be accurate. Motion studies (Choice C) involve observing and analyzing work movements to improve efficiency, rather than collecting work activity information directly from applicants. While interviewing (Choice D) is a common method in the selection process, it is more focused on assessing qualifications, experiences, and fit rather than directly collecting work activity information.

5. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

• A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
• B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
• C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
• D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

Similar Questions