Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse leader?

• A. Managing patient care directly
• B. Enforcing healthcare policies
• C. Inspiring and motivating the healthcare team
• D. Ensuring regulatory compliance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Inspiring and motivating the healthcare team.' Nurse leaders play a crucial role in fostering a positive and collaborative work environment by motivating and inspiring their team members. Choice A is incorrect because managing patient care directly is typically the responsibility of staff nurses, while nurse leaders focus on leadership and coordination. Choice B is incorrect as enforcing healthcare policies is usually a function of compliance officers or administrators. Choice D is also incorrect as ensuring regulatory compliance is important but is usually overseen by compliance officers or regulatory affairs specialists, not specifically the role of a nurse leader.

3. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

4. A technique used to eliminate negative behavior by ignoring the behavior is known as __________.

• A. Punishment
• B. Extinction
• C. Shaping
• D. Equity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Extinction.' Extinction is a behavioral psychology technique where undesirable behavior is ignored, leading to its eventual decrease or elimination. This process involves withholding reinforcement that was previously maintaining the behavior. Choice A, 'Punishment,' involves applying negative consequences to reduce unwanted behavior, which is different from extinction. Choice C, 'Shaping,' is a method of gradually molding or reinforcing behaviors to reach a desired behavior, not ignoring negative behavior. Choice D, 'Equity,' refers to fairness and equal treatment, which is unrelated to eliminating negative behavior through ignoring it.

5. A few weeks after an 82-year-old with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy and taught about appropriate diet and exercise, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C level is 7.9%.
• B. Last eye exam was 18 months ago.
• C. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased.
• D. Patient has questions about the prescribed diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important finding to discuss with the healthcare provider is the decreased glomerular filtration rate. In patients on metformin therapy, monitoring kidney function is crucial as metformin is primarily excreted through the kidneys. A decreased glomerular filtration rate can lead to metformin accumulation in the body, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious adverse effect. The hemoglobin A1C level being 7.9% indicates poor diabetes control but can be addressed through medication adjustments and lifestyle modifications. The patient needing an eye exam after 18 months is important but not as urgent as discussing the decreased glomerular filtration rate. Patient questions about the prescribed diet can be addressed during the visit without the need for immediate healthcare provider intervention.

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