Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to which of the following?

• A. A nursing shortage exists
• B. Staff nurses are not trained to be culturally sensitive
• C. 80% of nursing staff comes from one or more minority groups
• D. The increase in cultural diversity is seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to the increase in cultural diversity seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff. This challenge requires nurse managers to ensure that their nursing staff can effectively communicate and provide culturally competent care to patients from diverse backgrounds. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly relate to the impact of cultural diversity. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the training of staff nurses rather than the overall challenge of managing cultural diversity. Choice C is incorrect as the percentage of nursing staff from minority groups, while important, is not the primary reason cultural diversity poses a challenge to nurse managers.

3. A client discharges AMA (against medical advice). This is an example of the _________ type of risk category?

• A. nurse-focused
• B. physician-focused
• C. medical-legal incident
• D. Patient-focused

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client discharges AMA, it falls under the medical-legal incident risk category. This choice focuses on the legal aspect of the situation, as it involves the patient's right to make decisions about their care, informed consent, and the associated legal implications. Choices A and B are incorrect as they unnecessarily specify individual healthcare roles and do not encompass the broader legal implications of discharging against medical advice. Choice D, patient-focused, is also incorrect as it doesn't capture the legal and risk-related aspects of the scenario.

4. What is the primary purpose of a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)?

• A. To coordinate all aspects of patient care
• B. To reduce healthcare costs
• C. To implement the latest clinical guidelines
• D. To provide financial incentives for providers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To coordinate all aspects of patient care.' A patient-centered medical home (PCMH) aims to provide comprehensive and continuous care by coordinating various aspects of a patient's healthcare needs. While reducing healthcare costs and implementing clinical guidelines are important goals in healthcare, the primary focus of a PCMH is on enhancing patient care coordination to improve outcomes and patient satisfaction. Providing financial incentives for providers is not the primary purpose of a PCMH, although it can be a component of some models to encourage quality care delivery.

5. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to

• A. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved
• B. limit calorie intake until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL
• C. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise
• D. decrease carbohydrate intake until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should advise the patient to monitor her blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. This is important because the patient is experiencing symptoms of an illness (sore throat and runny nose) that can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. By monitoring frequently, any significant rise in blood glucose can be detected early, enabling prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping glargine (Lantus) insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Choice B is incorrect as limiting calorie intake is not the appropriate immediate action for managing high blood glucose levels. Choice D is also incorrect as adjusting carbohydrate intake based on glycosylated hemoglobin levels is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

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