Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering flu vaccinations
• B. Screening for hypertension
• C. Performing a mastectomy
• D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who received an IV fluid bolus for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume excess?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Slow capillary refill
• D. Weak, thready pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Distended neck veins.' Distended neck veins are a sign of fluid volume excess, indicating an overload of fluids in the body. This can be caused by excessive fluid administration. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with fluid volume deficit. Slow capillary refill (choice C) and a weak, thready pulse (choice D) are also signs of decreased fluid volume, not fluid volume excess.

3. The staff nurse is caring for the client with total accountability and is in continual communication with the client, the family, the physicians, and other members of the health care team. This type of nursing delivery system is known as:

• A. Total patient care
• B. Qualified nurse case managers
• C. Established critical pathways
• D. Quality management system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Total patient care. Total patient care is the original model of nursing care delivery, in which one RN has complete responsibility for all aspects of care for one or more patients. In this system, the nurse is accountable for the client's care and maintains continuous communication with the client, their family, physicians, and other healthcare team members. Choice B, Qualified nurse case managers, refers to nurses who coordinate care but do not provide direct hands-on patient care. Choice C, Established critical pathways, involves predefined care plans for specific conditions but does not imply direct accountability as in total patient care. Choice D, Quality management system, relates to processes to ensure and enhance the quality of care but is not specifically about the direct provision of patient care.

4. What is the primary role of the nurse manager in risk management?

• A. Ensure compliance with regulations
• B. Report incidents to higher authorities
• C. Minimize risks to patients and staff
• D. Educate staff about safe practices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Minimize risks to patients and staff. Nurse managers play a crucial role in risk management by identifying potential risks, implementing strategies to reduce or eliminate these risks, and ensuring a safe environment for patients and staff. Choice A is incorrect because while ensuring compliance with regulations is important, the primary role of the nurse manager in risk management is to minimize risks. Choice B is incorrect as reporting incidents is part of risk management but not the primary role of a nurse manager. Choice D is also a responsibility of nurse managers, but educating staff about safe practices is not the primary focus when it comes to risk management.

5. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

Similar Questions