Nursing Elites

1. In which frame of reference do activities involve responses to movement, balance, weight bearing, and tactile activities?

• A. Motor control/motor learning
• B. Ayres' sensory integration
• C. Neurodevelopmental treatment
• D. Developmental

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ayres' sensory integration focuses on activities that target responses to movement, balance, weight bearing, and tactile stimuli to improve sensory processing and integration. This approach aims to address sensory challenges through structured activities to enhance overall function and participation. Motor control/motor learning (Choice A) deals with the control and coordination of voluntary movements. Neurodevelopmental treatment (Choice C) focuses on facilitating normal movement patterns and postural control. Developmental (Choice D) refers to the natural sequence of growth and development in children.

2. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?

• A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
• B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
• C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
• D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.

3. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?

• A. Bag-valve-mask system
• B. Sterile gauze and saline
• C. Soft arm restraints
• D. Endotracheal tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.

5. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

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