which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks gestation about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because amniocentesis is a procedure that confirms genetic disorders by analyzing the amniotic fluid surrounding the baby. Choice B is incorrect because amniocentesis is not used to assess lung maturity. Choice C is incorrect because some discomfort or pain may be felt during the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because amniocentesis does not primarily assess the amount of amniotic fluid around the baby.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

4. A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who is angry and throwing objects at staff members. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.

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