which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because prednisone is usually prescribed for long-term use. Stopping it abruptly can lead to adrenal insufficiency. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to prevent stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect as prednisone is typically tapered off gradually to avoid adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take prednisone with a high-protein snack.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

5. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.

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