a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease the nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min is significantly low, indicating poor kidney function and the need for hemodialysis to remove waste products effectively. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and electrolyte balance but are not direct indicators for the initiation of hemodialysis. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) reflects the kidney's ability to filter waste products, serum magnesium levels are important for muscle and nerve function, and serum phosphorus levels are vital for bone health.

2. A client is receiving a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication.' Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication, and taking aspirin concurrently can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A nurse should not instruct the client to rub the injection site after administration as it may cause irritation. Pinching the skin while administering the injection is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Aspirating before administering the medication is also unnecessary as enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

5. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

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