a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing education material for a client. Which of the following techniques should the professional use in creating material?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a 7th-grade reading level.' This ensures that the material is accessible to most clients by keeping the language simple and easy to understand. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not enhance overall readability. Avoiding cartoons (Choice C) is not a universal rule and can sometimes make the material more engaging. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can make the material difficult to comprehend for many clients.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.

5. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.

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