a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.

5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

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