a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate with orange juice to increase absorption because the vitamin C content in orange juice enhances iron absorption. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B is incorrect because milk can decrease iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect because antacids can reduce the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with alcohol use disorder experiencing withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in these clients by reducing anxiety, tremors, and the risk of seizures. Administering naloxone (Choice A) is used for opioid overdose, not alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial but not a specific intervention for alcohol withdrawal. Administering magnesium sulfate (Choice D) is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal but may be used for other conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

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