ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
- C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- D. INR of 2.0
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
- B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
- C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
- D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.
3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Digoxin
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.
4. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Lidocaine
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine.
- B. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Keep the wound open to air.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.
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