a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery and is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common response to acute pain due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity. Options A and B, Bradycardia and Hypotension, are unlikely findings in a client experiencing acute pain as pain usually triggers an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Option D, Hyperactive bowel sounds, is not typically associated with acute pain.

3. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

4. What is the initial step when a patient is experiencing chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing chest pain. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, which is crucial in cases of chest pain. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or administering nitroglycerin may be necessary steps depending on the underlying cause, but administering oxygen takes precedence as it addresses the primary concern of oxygen supply to the body during chest pain.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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