ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence. What is the nurse's priority?
- A. Develop a safety plan with the client.
- B. Refer the client to a community support group.
- C. Determine if the client has any injuries.
- D. Contact the client's family about the incident.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Develop a safety plan with the client.' When caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence, the nurse's priority is to ensure the client's safety. Developing a safety plan is essential to address the immediate safety concerns and provide support to the client. Referring the client to a community support group, as in option B, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries, as in option C, is important for assessing physical well-being, the priority is to address safety concerns first. Contacting the client's family about the incident, as in option D, is not appropriate without the client's consent and may further endanger the client.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1-day-old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
- B. Keep the infant's head covered with a cap.
- C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
- D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent skin irritation during phototherapy. Choice A is incorrect as newborns should be breastfed or formula-fed, not given glucose water. Choice B is unnecessary and may interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is inappropriate as lotions can interfere with the phototherapy and increase the risk of skin damage.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid taking anticoagulant medication.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day.
- C. Avoid isometric exercises during recovery.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform range-of-motion exercises daily. After a stroke, performing range-of-motion exercises can help prevent complications such as joint stiffness and contractures. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Anticoagulant medications are often prescribed to prevent blood clots after a stroke, fluid intake should be adequate unless indicated otherwise, and isometric exercises can be beneficial during recovery.
4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
5. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
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