ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 9
1. Which best describes a tertiary prevention strategy?
- A. Providing rehabilitation services
- B. Screening for early signs of disease
- C. Educating the public about healthy lifestyles
- D. Offering health education workshops
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing rehabilitation services. Tertiary prevention involves interventions that focus on managing and improving the outcomes of existing conditions. Rehabilitation services fall under tertiary prevention as they aim to help individuals recover and manage long-term health issues. Screening for early signs of disease (Choice B) is part of secondary prevention, while educating the public about healthy lifestyles (Choice C) and offering health education workshops (Choice D) typically fall under primary prevention strategies.
2. When a client has peptic ulcer disease, the nurse would expect a priority intervention to be:
- A. Assisting in inserting a Miller-Abbott tube
- B. Assisting in inserting an arterial pressure line
- C. Inserting a nasogastric tube
- D. Inserting an I.V.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inserting a nasogastric tube is a priority intervention for a client with peptic ulcer disease to decompress the stomach.
3. The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. "I notice when I take a vitamin E supplement, I bruise more easily."
- B. "I work nights and rarely go outside during the day."
- C. "I take warfarin, so I need to limit the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat."
- D. "My vitamin supplement has the recommended daily allowance of vitamin A."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?
- A. Administering iron supplements
- B. Administering blood transfusions
- C. Providing a high-iron diet
- D. Administering erythropoietin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.
5. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Apply compression stockings
- C. Encourage ambulation
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.
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