Nursing Elites

1. When developing a home program for self-care, which approach is the most effective?

• A. Require the parent to practice the steps regularly and track progress.
• B. Introduce new home programs weekly with clear instructions for the parent to follow.
• C. List all the steps and have the parent teach them to the child without practicing.
• D. Practice the new steps until the child is ready to independently perform them at home.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective approach when developing a home program for self-care is to practice the new steps with the child until they are capable of independently carrying them out at home. This method ensures that the child has mastered the skills before transitioning to independent implementation. It is essential for the child's success in self-care activities and promotes their autonomy and confidence. Requiring the parent to practice the steps regularly and track progress, introducing new programs weekly, or having the parent teach the steps without practice may not be as beneficial in fostering the child's independence and skill acquisition.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?

• A. Bag-valve-mask system
• B. Sterile gauze and saline
• C. Soft arm restraints
• D. Endotracheal tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.

3. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

4. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

5. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

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