Nursing Elites

1. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing.
• B. Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours.
• C. Offer the infant frequent, small feedings.
• D. Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing an infant who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bounding pulses
• C. Hyperactivity
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In infants with heart failure, one of the key manifestations is weight gain due to fluid retention. The heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing weight gain. Bounding pulses, hyperactivity, and increased urine output are not typically associated with heart failure in infants. Bounding pulses are associated with conditions like aortic regurgitation, hyperactivity can be a sign of other issues, and increased urine output is not a common finding in heart failure.

4. Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?

• A. Urostomy
• B. Ileal conduit
• C. Nephrostomy
• D. Suprapubic placement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ileal conduit. The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. Unlike urostomy, nephrostomy, and suprapubic placement, the ileal conduit does not require an external appliance, which can be less damaging to an adolescent's body image.

5. The patient with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium and has a new prescription for captopril for hypertension. The combination of these two drugs makes which assessment particularly important?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Lithium level
• C. Creatinine level
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When captopril, an ACE inhibitor, is combined with lithium, it can lead to lithium accumulation. Therefore, monitoring lithium levels is crucial to prevent toxicity. While ACE inhibitors like captopril can cause hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, and hypotension, the risk of these effects is not increased by the combination of lithium and captopril.

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