ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Final Exam
1. Which Apgar criterion can be more difficult to apply to newborns of all races?
- A. pink color
- B. reflex irritability
- C. limp muscle tone
- D. strong breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Among the Apgar criteria, the pink color (choice A), reflex irritability (choice B), and limp muscle tone (choice C) are relatively easy to assess in newborns of all races. However, the criterion that can be more difficult to apply to newborns of all races is strong breathing (choice D). This is because evaluating the strength of a newborn's breathing can be more subjective and require careful observation. Unlike the other criteria that have more visible and objective indicators, assessing the strength of breathing might vary based on the observer's interpretation, making it more challenging to apply universally.
2. An emerging technique in screening for Breast Cancer in developing countries like the Philippines is:
- A. Mammography once a year starting at the age of 50
- B. Clinical BSE Once a year
- C. BSE Once a month
- D. Pap smear starting at the age of 18 or earlier if sexually active
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
3. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
4. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
- A. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank.
- B. Collecting a urine sample.
- C. Measuring the client's pain level.
- D. Transporting a client to x-ray.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
5. A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of the purified protein derivative (PPD) testing she performed to screen for tuberculosis (TB). She interprets which of the following results as positive for a 6-year-old client with no risk factors for TB?
- A. 4-mm erythema
- B. 5-mm induration
- C. 10-mm wheal
- D. 15-mm induration
Correct answer: 15-mm induration
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 15-mm induration. In PPD testing, an induration (hardened raised area) of 15 mm or more is considered positive for TB in individuals with no risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an erythema of 4 mm, induration of 5 mm, or wheal of 10 mm are not indicative of a positive TB test result in a low-risk individual. Therefore, the interpretation of a 15-mm induration would lead the nurse to consider the test positive for TB in this case.
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