Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has a rotavirus infection. Which of the following is an expected manifestation?

• A. Constipation
• B. Vomiting
• C. Jaundice
• D. Abdominal pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vomiting is a common manifestation of rotavirus infection in children. Rotavirus typically presents with symptoms such as watery diarrhea, vomiting, fever, and abdominal pain. Constipation, jaundice, and abdominal pain are less commonly associated with rotavirus infection in children.

2. When educating a parent of a child with HIV, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will notify my child's school about their condition.
• B. I will give my child the prescribed antiretroviral medication at regular intervals.
• C. I will expect my child to receive yearly immunizations.
• D. I will bring my child in for yearly skin testing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because ensuring the child receives the prescribed antiretroviral medication at regular intervals is crucial in maintaining therapeutic levels and preventing drug resistance in a child with HIV. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because notifying the school about the condition, expecting yearly immunizations, and bringing the child in for yearly skin testing do not directly address the essential aspect of medication adherence, which is fundamental in managing HIV in children.

3. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

4. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?

• A. Angiotensin I
• B. Angiotensin II
• C. Angiotensin III
• D. Renin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.

5. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

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