Nursing Elites

1. Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of beneficence?

• A. Ensuring all clients are treated fairly
• B. Preventing harm by providing accurate information
• C. Allowing the client to refuse treatment
• D. Ensuring the client's family agrees with the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good or acting in the best interest of the client. Preventing harm by providing accurate information and necessary care aligns with the principle of beneficence, as it focuses on promoting the well-being and safety of the client. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the concept of beneficence. Ensuring all clients are treated fairly relates more to justice, allowing the client to refuse treatment pertains to autonomy, and ensuring the client's family agrees with the treatment involves collaboration and communication but not specifically beneficence.

2. A healthcare professional suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics. What is the first step the healthcare professional should take?

• A. Confront the colleague directly
• B. Report the suspicion to the supervisor
• C. Ignore the issue and continue working
• D. Notify the pharmacy about the colleague's behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step for a healthcare professional who suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics is to report the suspicion to the supervisor. This action is essential to protect patient safety, uphold ethical standards, and comply with legal obligations. Confronting the colleague directly may not only escalate the situation but also jeopardize the investigation process. Ignoring the issue and continuing to work could potentially harm patients and violate professional responsibilities. Notifying the pharmacy, while important, should come after informing the appropriate supervisor or authority within the healthcare facility.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hours
• B. Administer furosemide to the client
• C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hours
• D. Offer the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Offering the client 240 ml (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hours is essential to maintain hydration in a client with dehydration who is receiving continuous IV infusion. This intervention helps ensure an adequate fluid balance. Monitoring the client's intake and output every 6 hours is necessary to assess hydration status and response to treatment. Administering furosemide to the client, choice B, is contraindicated in dehydration as it can further deplete fluid volume. Checking the IV infusion every 8 hours, as in choice C, is important but not as critical as ensuring oral fluid intake to promote hydration.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
• B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
• C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
• D. The client has Medicare insurance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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