Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy and reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (SATA)

• A. Change the client's position
• B. Identify the client's pain level
• C. Remind the client to use incisional splinting
• D. Offer the client a back rub

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct actions the nurse should take when caring for a client postoperative following a cholecystectomy and reporting pain include changing the client's position. This can help relieve postoperative pain by reducing pressure on the surgical site. Identifying the client's pain level is important but not specific to alleviating postoperative pain. While reminding the client to use incisional splinting can be beneficial, it may not directly address the immediate pain concern. Offering the client a back rub is not typically indicated for postoperative pain relief after a cholecystectomy.

2. A nurse is observing a patient's use of a walker. Which observation indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. The patient advances the walker too far ahead.
• B. The patient uses the walker to assist in standing.
• C. The patient maintains their balance while using the walker.
• D. The patient walks with their back hunched over.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because advancing the walker too far ahead increases the risk of falls, indicating a need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as using the walker to assist in standing is a proper use. Choice C is correct as maintaining balance while using the walker shows proper technique. Choice D is incorrect as walking with the back hunched over is a posture issue, not directly related to walker use.

3. A patient with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the patient to eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Monitor the patient's intake and output.
• C. Educate the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet.
• D. Monitor the patient's protein intake closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's protein intake closely. In patients with chronic kidney disease on a low-protein diet, monitoring protein intake is crucial to prevent complications such as malnutrition or inadequate nutrient intake. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority over monitoring protein intake. Monitoring intake and output (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the specific focus on protein intake. Educating the patient on the benefits of a low-protein diet (Choice C) is essential but not as immediate as monitoring the actual protein intake.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

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