Nursing Elites

1. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?

• A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
• B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
• C. Respiratory excitement
• D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.

2. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

3. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing

• A. Baseline vital signs
• B. Systolic blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Apical pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This technique allows healthcare providers to accurately assess the heart rate and rhythm by listening to the heart sounds directly at this point.

4. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Notify the provider.
• B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.

5. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?

• A. Thiamine
• B. Riboflavin
• C. Pyridoxine
• D. Pantothenic acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

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