Nursing Elites

1. What steps are NOT included in preparing a sterile field?

• A. Do not turn away from the sterile field
• B. Obtain PAPR mask
• C. Prepare the client before setting up the sterile field
• D. Cover the sterile field once it is set up

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. Why is traction used?

• A. It allows the bones to realign
• B. It decreases the risk of misalignment
• C. It promotes wound healing
• D. It allows the client to rest longer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Traction is used to help align the bones properly during the healing process. Choice A is correct because traction assists in allowing the bones to realign correctly, promoting proper healing. Choice B is incorrect as traction does not decrease the risk of misalignment; instead, it helps reduce misalignment by aiding in bone alignment. Choice C is incorrect because while traction indirectly supports wound healing by ensuring proper bone alignment, its primary purpose is not wound healing. Choice D is incorrect as the primary purpose of traction is not to allow the client to rest longer, but rather to aid in bone alignment for optimal healing.

3. A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old male quadriplegic client. Which of the following treatments would the nurse perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility?

• A. Administer glucosamine supplements
• B. Turn the client every 2 hours
• C. Provide active range of motion (ROM)
• D. Provide passive range of motion (ROM)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide passive range of motion (ROM). In quadriplegic clients, who have limited or no movement of their limbs, passive ROM exercises are crucial to maintain joint mobility and prevent joint contractures. Administering glucosamine supplements (choice A) is not directly related to promoting joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours (choice B) is essential for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address joint contracture and mobility. Providing active ROM exercises (choice C) may not be suitable for quadriplegic clients as they are unable to perform these movements on their own.

4. A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What is the best explanation?

• A. Once bacterial infection has caused damage, the tissue does not regenerate.
• B. Once retinal detachment occurs, it does not return to its normal state.
• C. Too many nerve fibers have become ischemic and died, so vision loss is permanent.
• D. Glaucoma always leads to permanent blindness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In glaucoma, the optic nerve damage due to high intraocular pressure leads to permanent vision loss because the nerve fibers do not regenerate. Choice A is incorrect as it discusses bacterial infection, not relevant to glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to retinal detachment, not glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because not all glaucoma cases lead to permanent blindness; vision loss can be prevented or slowed with treatment.

5. Why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures?

• A. The client has bone spurs that lead to fractures
• B. The client has increased bone density
• C. The client has porous bones
• D. The client is not prone to fractures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is characterized by porous, weak bones due to decreased bone density. This porous nature of bones in osteoporosis makes them more prone to fractures. Choice A is incorrect because bone spurs do not lead to fractures in osteoporosis; they are bony outgrowths unrelated to osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as osteoporosis is associated with decreased, not increased, bone density. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with osteoporosis are indeed prone to fractures due to weakened bones.

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