what signs indicate increased intracranial pressure iicp
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who was newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nephrotic syndrome leads to edema, especially of the face and dependent areas, due to the loss of protein in the urine. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as using a soft bristle toothbrush is not directly related to the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome.

3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because while inspecting the pin site is important, it should be done more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as the halo device should be supported by the client's body weight, not personnel, when repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with hypertension, a low sodium diet is recommended to help control blood pressure. Among the food choices provided, the best option is 3 oz of chicken breast. Chicken breast is lean protein with lower sodium content compared to other choices. It is a healthier option for managing hypertension. Reconstituted dry onion soup (Choice A) and canned baked beans (Choice D) typically contain higher amounts of sodium, which can be detrimental for blood pressure management. Lean cured ham (Choice B) also tends to have a higher sodium content, making it less suitable for a client with hypertension.

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