what should the nurse do to manage a patient with contact precautions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. What should be done to manage a patient with contact precautions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a patient with contact precautions, it is essential to dedicate all patient care equipment to that specific patient. This practice helps minimize the risk of spreading infections to other patients. Choice A, wearing protective gear for all patient interactions, is a general precaution but not specific to managing a patient with contact precautions. Choice B, ensuring visitors wear protective equipment, is important for infection control but not directly related to managing the patient with contact precautions. Choice D, disinfecting shared equipment before use, is a good practice for infection control in general but does not address the specific needs of a patient under contact precautions.

2. What is the primary goal when caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain the patient's oxygen saturation above 90% when caring for a patient with COPD. In COPD, impaired gas exchange leads to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. By ensuring oxygen saturation remains above 90%, healthcare providers can prevent hypoxia and its complications. Administering bronchodilators as prescribed (Choice B) is an important intervention in managing COPD symptoms, but it is not the primary goal. Improving the patient's nutritional intake (Choice C) and encouraging the patient to limit physical activity (Choice D) are also essential aspects of COPD management, but they are not the primary goal when caring for a patient with this condition.

3. A newly licensed nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using I-SBAR to an oncoming nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should be included in the 'Background' portion of the report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the 'Background' portion of the report, the nurse should include relevant historical information about the client, such as the fact that the client has no living family members. This information helps provide a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically included in the 'Background' section as they do not pertain to the client's history or background.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.

5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

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