ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. A patient is admitted and is placed on fall precautions. The nurse teaches the patient and family about fall precautions. Which action will the nurse take in accordance with hospital policy?
- A. Encourage visitors during visiting hours.
- B. Keep the patient on fall precautions until discharge.
- C. Check on the patient every shift.
- D. Raise all four side rails.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because patients on fall precautions need continuous monitoring until discharge to prevent falls. While encouraging visitors during visiting hours (Choice A) is important for the patient's well-being, it is not related to fall precautions. Checking on the patient every shift (Choice C) is an essential nursing intervention, but keeping the patient on fall precautions is more specific to preventing falls. Raising all four side rails (Choice D) is not recommended as it can restrict the patient's mobility and is considered a restraint practice.
2. A client with severe dyspnea is scheduled for multiple diagnostic tests. Which test should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer an echocardiogram first.
- B. Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client.
- C. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- D. Order an MRI first.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client. When a client presents with severe dyspnea, a chest x-ray should be prioritized as it helps in assessing the lungs and heart, which are crucial in cases of respiratory distress. Echocardiograms are more focused on assessing heart function and may not provide immediate information needed in cases of dyspnea. CT scans and MRIs are more detailed imaging studies that are not typically the first-line diagnostic tests for severe dyspnea.
3. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Taking two medications ensures a faster recovery.
- B. The medications work best together to improve your immune system.
- C. Taking the 2 medications together keeps you from becoming resistant to either of them.
- D. These medications target different parts of the virus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.
4. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?
- A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
- B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
- C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
- D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
- B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
- C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
- D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
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