a nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy egd which of the following assessments is the nurses priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

2. A nurse manager is preparing to complete staff performance appraisals. Which of the following principles should the nurse manager consider when completing the appraisals?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Performance appraisals should indeed be written in measurable terms to ensure objective evaluations based on specific outcomes achieved. This allows for a clear assessment of staff performance. Choice B is incorrect because appraisal objectives should be tailored to each staff member's role and responsibilities, not necessarily applicable at every level. Choice C is incorrect as performance appraisals should be objective and based on predefined criteria, not solely on the nurse manager's preferences. Choice D is incorrect as completed appraisals usually require approval from higher-level management or HR, not necessarily a provider.

3. A client has bilateral eye patches following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Describing the location of food on the tray helps promote independence for the client with bilateral eye patches. By providing clear instructions on where the food is placed, the client can independently locate and consume their meal. Option A is incorrect as physically placing the client's hands on the tray does not encourage independence. Option B is unnecessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions indicated. Option C does not promote the client's independence and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

4. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.

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