Nursing Elites

1. If a nurse misread a glucose reading as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered insulin, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the nurse administered insulin based on an incorrect glucose reading, which could lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial to prevent any adverse effects on the patient's health. Choice B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect as the administration of insulin can lead to low blood sugar levels, not high. Choice C, administering glucose IV, is not the immediate action needed as monitoring for hypoglycemia comes first. Choice D, documenting the incident, is important but not the initial priority when patient safety is at risk.

2. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized swelling and redness
• C. Fever and swelling
• D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
• B. Monitor for increased thirst
• C. Monitor serum albumin levels
• D. Monitor blood pressure closely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.

4. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Aminophylline IV
• D. Methylprednisolone IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.

5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
• C. Widened QRS complex
• D. Prominent U waves on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

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